Why is it easier to oxidise $Fe^(2+)$ to $Fe^(3+)$ than it is to oxidise $Mn^(2+)$ to $Mn^(3+)$ ?

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Why is it easier to oxidise $Fe^(2+)$ to $Fe^(3+)$ than it is to oxidise $Mn^(2+)$ to $Mn^(3+)$ ?

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Answer 1 · 2017-11-13T14:18:40

Well, consider the NEUTRAL electron configurations:

$"Fe": [Ar] 3d^6 4s^2$
$"Mn": [Ar] 3d^5 4s^2$

The $4s$ orbital is higher in energy in these atoms, so it is ionized first:

$"Fe"^(2+): [Ar] 3d^6$
$"Mn"^(2+): [Ar] 3d^5$

Drawn out:

$"Fe"^(2+): ul(uarr darr)" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))$

$"Mn"^(2+): ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))" "ul(uarr color(white)(darr))$

A single oxidation is the act of singly ionizing:

$"M"^(2+) -> "M"^(3+) + e^(-)$

The electron to be removed from $Fe^(2+)$ is paired, having charge repulsions (making it easier to remove, i.e. the ionization energy is smaller).

Therefore, it is easier to ionize $"Fe"^(2+)$ than $"Mn"^(2+)$ .

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Why is it easier to oxidise $Fe^(2+)$ to $Fe^(3+)$ than it is to oxidise $Mn^(2+)$ to $Mn^(3+)$ ?

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Why is it easier to oxidise Fe^(2+)Fe^(2+) to Fe^(3+)Fe^(3+) than it is to oxidise Mn^(2+)Mn^(2+) to Mn^(3+)Mn^(3+)?

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Why is it easier to oxidise $Fe^(2+)$ to $Fe^(3+)$ than it is to oxidise $Mn^(2+)$ to $Mn^(3+)$ ?