Why does freezing point depression necessarily occur when adding a nonvolatile solute to a solvent?
1 Answer
We can consider the following equation for the chemical potential of a solution (closely related to the deviation of
#mu_j = mu_j^"*" + ln chi_(j(l))#
where
[You may see this commonly being used in the context of liquids, but you CAN dope solids (such as semiconductors), which does create impurities in them and follows a similar principle.]
Melting point depression is the same as freezing point depression.
If you consider the following graph, we can explain this:
For starters, notice how the mole fraction
Since it starts at
After adding an impurity, when
#mu_j < mu_j^"*"# .
On the above graph, we have to consider the ratio
To a first approximation, the slope remains essentially the same within the same condensed phase because it actually corresponds to the negative molar entropy of the phase:
#((delmu_j)/(delT))_(V, N_(i ne j)) = -barS = -S/n# ,
and a solid has a pretty much constant entropy.
Now, if you specifically look at a liquid, when
In relative terms, you could then say that
- the solid's line moves up.
- the intersection IS the freezing point, and it moved left.
That means the freezing point was lowered.
(You could go through the same reasoning and determine that the boiling point actually increases when you dissolve something in a liquid.)